Page 31 - Elohim - Almighty Godhead

The brand of intellectualism that Rabbinical Judaism espouses does not give a
satisfying explanation of what comprises the Almighty. Neither does their cherished
handed-down traditions of the oral Talmud impart what is missing. Truth consists of
only what is recorded in Scripture. Paul the apostle would often say, “but what do
the Scriptures say?” (Rom. 4:3).
For a prime example of a pungent rebuke of the prideful intellectual, let us consider
what is recorded in Scripture of one who never claimed to be a learned man, but
one used to pose an enormous challenge to the intellectuals of Judaism’s leaders in
his day:

“THE WORDS OF AGUR Agur
THE SON OF JAKEH, HIS UTTERANCE.
THIS MAN DECLARED TO ITHIEL
- TO ITHIEL AND UCAL:
‘SURELY I AM MORE STUPID
THAN ANY MAN,
AND DO NOT HAVE
THE UNDERSTANDING OF A MAN.
I NEITHER LEARNED WISDOM
NOR HAVE KNOWLEDGE
OF THE HOLY ONE.

WHO HAS ASCENDED INTO HEAVEN, OR DESCENDED?
WHO HAS GATHERED THE WIND IN HIS FISTS?
WHO HAS BOUND THE WATERS IN A GARMENT?
WHO HAS ESTABLISHED ALL THE ENDS OF THE EARTH?

WHAT IS HIS NAME, AND WHAT IS
HIS SON'S NAME, IF YOU KNOW?

…EVERY WORD OF GOD IS PURE…
DO NOT ADD TO HIS WORDS…”

Proverbs 30:1-6

First of all notice that in context, Agur has the Creator of the ends of the earth in
mind when he issues the challenge to all intellectuals of his day to reveal what is not
only the Name of the Creator, but also asks what is the Name of the Creator’s Son!
In context, we must ask is not Agur suggesting that there was more than a “singular
God” figure at work in Creation, that of the Father and His Son?

The startling fact that the Creator would even have a Son should shake up Agur's
peers who are steeped in the daily monotheistic Shema prayer of all Jews:

“Hear O Israel! The Lord our God is one!” (Deut. 6:4).

What does Agur’s statement above say about the validity of Judaism’s monotheistic
concept of God with their proud follow up statement, “God has no Son!”?
The above passages are as much a part of inspired Scripture as is Deuteronomy's
sacred Shema prayer, is it not? Both of these statements cannot be true, so which
one is theologically amiss?
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